Hello,
We are making a regression working with two categories of firms: family business and non-family business. To do some descriptive analyses we did an equality test of means.
We used the equality test by classification, and as categorical value we used 'FB', which is a dummy variable 1 if it is a family business. The test shows us that the average investments made is significantly different between these categories with a t-value of 4. The question is how can we interpret this value? Can we say that family businesses are on average more investing?
Thanks a lot!
Equality test of means
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