I have the following model* to maximize in order to estimate ∝a and ∝b, (Rj and Rm being known...)
I also have the distribution of the three regions 0, 1 and 2 under the form of interdependent dummy variables e0, e1, e2, verifying for each observation e0 + e1 + e2 = 1

so... I upload in Eviews work file my data Ri, Rm, e0, e1, e2 and try to create my LogLikelihood object, and then it becomes suddenly a bit more tricky... Here is what I have done so far (you may laugh... ):
' RI return of stock i (daily time series)
' RM market return (market index) (idem)
' A1 ask price =c(1) A2 bid price =c(2) BETA =c(3)
SIGMA2=c(4)
' == Multinomial log likelihood with 3 outcomes ==
' frequency of outcomes is available in series E1 E2 E3 available in binar format (1-applicable 0-ignore) with
@logl EQN
RES1= RI + c(1) - c(3)*RM
RES2= RI + c(2) - c(3)*RM
RES0=(@DNORM(RES2))-(@DNORM(RES1))
LG_E1 = LOG(@DNORM(RES1/@SQRT(SIGMA2)))-LOG(SIGMA2)/2
LG_E2 = LOG(@DNORM(RES2/@SQRT(SIGMA2)))-LOG(SIGMA2)/2
LG_E0 = LOG(RES0)
EQN= E1*LG_E1 + E2*LG_E2 + E0*LG_E0
But apparently, that's not the way it shall be done... I might have to introduce @deriv tags but don't really understand how I should make it...
Thanks for your patience and kindness, if this problem is a piece of cake to you...
* this is the Lesmond Ogden Trzcinka (1999) Limited Dependant Variable model for transactions cost estimation
