Newey west automatic selection of bandwidth
Posted: Fri Feb 15, 2013 8:55 am
Hi
I' m trying to understand the formulae behind the calculation of automatic bandwidth with kernel. When I work with Andrews method everything is ok but when the chosen method is Newey West (page 781 user's guide II) I'm facing some difficulties. I have a lot of work done but I'm afraid I'm a bit lost.
I'm sending you a simple model with only one parameter where you easily can follow my reasonning.
According to the guide I started calculating the various hypotesis of scalars autocovariances depending on the lags.All this calculations awhere based on the product sal*error ( independent variable *residual of regression) according to the model.
As in the example lag lengh = 1 it means that the autocovariances to use in forming the non parametric estimates f(q) are limited to this number, so it seems to me I should consider only 2 autocovariances (+1 and -1)in he calculation of f(q) with q=1 because of kernel function.
As to f(0) I considered the autocovariance for lag=0.
But the result Is not the one I should get, something is not correct or is missing, and I much appreciate if someone could give a help.
Thanks
João Pereira
I' m trying to understand the formulae behind the calculation of automatic bandwidth with kernel. When I work with Andrews method everything is ok but when the chosen method is Newey West (page 781 user's guide II) I'm facing some difficulties. I have a lot of work done but I'm afraid I'm a bit lost.
I'm sending you a simple model with only one parameter where you easily can follow my reasonning.
According to the guide I started calculating the various hypotesis of scalars autocovariances depending on the lags.All this calculations awhere based on the product sal*error ( independent variable *residual of regression) according to the model.
As in the example lag lengh = 1 it means that the autocovariances to use in forming the non parametric estimates f(q) are limited to this number, so it seems to me I should consider only 2 autocovariances (+1 and -1)in he calculation of f(q) with q=1 because of kernel function.
As to f(0) I considered the autocovariance for lag=0.
But the result Is not the one I should get, something is not correct or is missing, and I much appreciate if someone could give a help.
Thanks
João Pereira