SVAR estimation with zero long-run restrictions
Posted: Sat Sep 22, 2018 5:34 am
Hello,
I am trying to estimate a bivariate SVAR with zero long-run restrictions a la Blanchard and Quah (1989), with GDP growth and inflation as endogenous variables. My goal is to extract the structural shocks from the estimated SVARs based on data from different countries and calculate the correlations of the structural shocks across countries. I distinguish between two types of shocks, aggregate demand shocks and aggregate supply shocks. The former are assumed to have zero long-run effect on GDP, and this is the restriciton I impose to identify the SVAR. I need 4 restrictions for identification since the SVAR is bivariate, meaning 4 unknowns in the short-run matrix S. The other 3 restrictions are standard, meaning that the variance of the structural shocks is equal to 1 and their covariance is equal to 0.
When I try to estimate the SVAR in Eviews I impose the following pattern on the long-run matrix F: F(1,1)=0 and the rest of the elements are free parameters. After that, I extract the structural shocks, the first one being the aggregate demand shock and the second the aggregate supply shock and then I compute the correlations with the shocks of other countries. Based on a paper, which results I am trying to replicate, these correlations are positive. However, in my estimations I find correlations of the same absolute value, but with a negative sign. I re-estimated the SVAR, but this time I imposed the following pattern on the long-run matrix F: F(1,2)=0 while the rest of the parameters are free. Then I extract the structural shocks in the opposite order this time, the first one being the supply shock and the second one being the demand shock. After this step the correlations have the correct sign.
Could you please explain to me why I get these differences in the results? To my view, moving the zero restriction on matrix F one place to the right, should not change the results, having in mind that the structural shocks will be in inverse order. The paper I am following imposes the zero restriction on the F(1,1) element.
Thank you in advance!
I am trying to estimate a bivariate SVAR with zero long-run restrictions a la Blanchard and Quah (1989), with GDP growth and inflation as endogenous variables. My goal is to extract the structural shocks from the estimated SVARs based on data from different countries and calculate the correlations of the structural shocks across countries. I distinguish between two types of shocks, aggregate demand shocks and aggregate supply shocks. The former are assumed to have zero long-run effect on GDP, and this is the restriciton I impose to identify the SVAR. I need 4 restrictions for identification since the SVAR is bivariate, meaning 4 unknowns in the short-run matrix S. The other 3 restrictions are standard, meaning that the variance of the structural shocks is equal to 1 and their covariance is equal to 0.
When I try to estimate the SVAR in Eviews I impose the following pattern on the long-run matrix F: F(1,1)=0 and the rest of the elements are free parameters. After that, I extract the structural shocks, the first one being the aggregate demand shock and the second the aggregate supply shock and then I compute the correlations with the shocks of other countries. Based on a paper, which results I am trying to replicate, these correlations are positive. However, in my estimations I find correlations of the same absolute value, but with a negative sign. I re-estimated the SVAR, but this time I imposed the following pattern on the long-run matrix F: F(1,2)=0 while the rest of the parameters are free. Then I extract the structural shocks in the opposite order this time, the first one being the supply shock and the second one being the demand shock. After this step the correlations have the correct sign.
Could you please explain to me why I get these differences in the results? To my view, moving the zero restriction on matrix F one place to the right, should not change the results, having in mind that the structural shocks will be in inverse order. The paper I am following imposes the zero restriction on the F(1,1) element.
Thank you in advance!