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Oh? Being vaguely okay would be a marked improvement from my current understanding. I'll continue reviewing, see what I can find about problems associated with over differencing.

Thank you!

The papers I am reading through are thoroughly focused upon spurious regression in the levels. My demand equation is estimated in log difference (ld) form, e.g:
ld_Expenditure = ld_Income, ld_Wealth, ld_OwnPrice, ld_SubstitutePrice

Does that change the nature of the problem?

Ah. Thank you for your thoughts, in any case.

Income and wealth are both I(1) series. My issue is with the mixing of I(1) and I(0) due to the price measures being I(0). When I was in school, it was continuously stressed that the results from a mixed order regression are not to be considered valid, hence my concerns here. I'm presently reading t...

I'm estimating a demand equation of the following form, with all variables expressed as natural logarithms: Expenditure = f(Income, Wealth, Own Price, Price of Substitute) The model performs quite well, save for issues around the price variables. Regardless of the time period chosen (e.g., 1948-2014...