in an ARDL Model DV is I(0) and the IV are I(1) and I(0), then can we use the same model for estimation as per the ARDL model assumptions DV must be I(1). then what will be the way to resolve this problem. please guide me.
Thank
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- Sat Aug 29, 2015 7:15 am
- Forum: Econometric Discussions
- Topic: If IN ARDL Model dependent variable is I(O) AND IV is I(1)
- Replies: 0
- Views: 1780